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This free IB Biology practice exam covers the four themes of the 2023 syllabus — unity and diversity, form and function, interaction and interdependence, continuity and change — with fifteen Paper 1A-style multiple-choice questions and two Paper 2-style structured questions: an osmosis data-analysis question with the data given in the text, and a sex-linked inheritance question that extends into meiosis and natural selection. It targets the places IB candidates lose marks: vague osmosis language, swapped hormones and ions, and "explain" answers that only describe, with IB-style mark allocation on every part.

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  1. Question 11 mark · Molecules of life
    Water is pulled up the xylem of a tall tree as a continuous column. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the column not breaking under tension?
    • A.
      Adhesion of water molecules to the cellulose walls of the xylem
    • B.
      Cohesion between water molecules
    • C.
      The high specific heat capacity of water
    • D.
      The ability of water to dissolve ions
  2. Question 21 mark · Molecules of life
    In a sample of double-stranded DNA, 30% of the nucleotides contain adenine. What percentage of the nucleotides contain guanine?
    • A.
      20%
    • B.
      30%
    • C.
      40%
    • D.
      70%
  3. Question 31 mark · Cells & membranes
    In a photomicrograph, a cell measures 50 mm across. The actual diameter of the cell is 20 μm20\ \mu\text{m}. What is the magnification of the image?
    • A.
      ×25\times 25
    • B.
      ×250\times 250
    • C.
      ×2500\times 2500
    • D.
      ×25 000\times 25\,000
  4. Question 41 mark · Diversity & evolution
    According to the biological species concept, two populations belong to different species if they:
    • A.
      live in different habitats and never meet
    • B.
      show visible differences in body size or colour
    • C.
      cannot interbreed to produce fertile offspring
    • D.
      have different numbers of chromosomes in their body cells
  5. Question 51 mark · Enzymes & metabolism
    An enzyme-catalysed reaction is carried out at temperatures above the enzyme's optimum. Which statement best explains why the rate of reaction falls?
    • A.
      The substrate molecules move too fast to bind to the enzyme
    • B.
      Bonds maintaining the tertiary structure break, changing the shape of the active site
    • C.
      The substrate molecules are denatured by the heat
    • D.
      The activation energy of the reaction increases
  6. Question 61 mark · Enzymes & metabolism
    Which statement correctly describes a difference between anaerobic and aerobic cell respiration in human muscle cells?
    • A.
      Anaerobic respiration produces ethanol and carbon dioxide
    • B.
      Anaerobic respiration yields far less ATP per molecule of glucose
    • C.
      Aerobic respiration takes place only in the cytoplasm
    • D.
      Anaerobic respiration uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor
  7. Question 71 mark · Enzymes & metabolism
    A student measures the rate of photosynthesis of pondweed at a high, constant light intensity and a constant carbon dioxide concentration. When the temperature is raised from 15∘C15^{\circ}\text{C} to 25∘C25^{\circ}\text{C}, the rate doubles. Which factor was limiting the rate at 15∘C15^{\circ}\text{C}?
    • A.
      Light intensity
    • B.
      Carbon dioxide concentration
    • C.
      Temperature
    • D.
      Wavelength of the light
  8. Question 81 mark · Exchange & transport
    Which feature of the alveoli in human lungs increases the rate of gas exchange by reducing the diffusion distance?
    • A.
      A wall made of a single layer of flattened cells
    • B.
      A very large total surface area
    • C.
      A dense network of surrounding capillaries
    • D.
      A film of moisture lining the inner surface
  9. Question 91 mark · Homeostasis & signalling
    Shortly after a meal rich in carbohydrate, the blood glucose concentration rises. Which hormone is released in response, and by which cells?
    • A.
      Insulin, released by alpha cells of the pancreas
    • B.
      Glucagon, released by alpha cells of the pancreas
    • C.
      Insulin, released by beta cells of the pancreas
    • D.
      Glucagon, released by beta cells of the pancreas
  10. Question 101 mark · Homeostasis & signalling
    Which event occurs during the depolarisation phase of an action potential in a neuron?
    • A.
      Potassium ions diffuse into the axon through open channels
    • B.
      Sodium ions diffuse into the axon through voltage-gated channels
    • C.
      Sodium ions are pumped out of the axon by sodium–potassium pumps
    • D.
      Potassium ions diffuse out of the axon through voltage-gated channels
  11. Question 111 mark · Defence against disease
    Why does vaccination give long-term protection against a pathogen?
    • A.
      The vaccine contains antibodies that remain in the blood for many years
    • B.
      Antigens in the vaccine stimulate the production of memory cells
    • C.
      The vaccine kills any pathogens already present in the body
    • D.
      The vaccine prevents the pathogen from entering the body
  12. Question 121 mark · DNA & gene expression
    Bacteria grown for many generations in a medium containing only heavy nitrogen (15N^{15}\mathrm{N}) are transferred to a medium containing only light nitrogen (14N^{14}\mathrm{N}) and allowed to divide twice. What proportion of the DNA molecules then consist of one heavy strand and one light strand?
    • A.
      0%
    • B.
      25%
    • C.
      50%
    • D.
      100%
  13. Question 131 mark · DNA & gene expression
    The template strand of a gene has the base sequence 3'-TACGGA-5'. What is the sequence of the mRNA transcribed from it?
    • A.
      5'-AUGCCU-3'
    • B.
      5'-UACGGA-3'
    • C.
      5'-ATGCCT-3'
    • D.
      5'-UCCGUA-3'
  14. Question 141 mark · Diversity & evolution
    In an industrial region, a moth population changed over a century from mostly pale to mostly dark forms as soot darkened the tree bark on which the moths rest and birds preyed on them. Which statement correctly describes what happened?
    • A.
      The pollution caused mutations that turned pale moths dark
    • B.
      Individual moths became darker during their lives to match the bark
    • C.
      Dark moths, already present as a rare variant, were eaten less often and left more offspring, so the dark allele became more common
    • D.
      Pale moths migrated away from the polluted region
  15. Question 151 mark · Ecosystems & climate
    Which of the following is an example of positive feedback in global warming?
    • A.
      Faster plant growth at higher carbon dioxide concentrations removes more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
    • B.
      Thawing permafrost releases methane, which causes further warming and further thawing
    • C.
      Increased evaporation produces more cloud, which reflects more sunlight back into space
    • D.
      Warmer oceans dissolve more carbon dioxide from the air
  16. Question 1610 marks · Cells & membranes
    A student investigated osmosis in potato tissue. Five cylinders were cut from the same potato, blotted dry and weighed, then each was placed for 30 minutes in a sucrose solution of a different concentration. Each cylinder was then blotted and reweighed. The percentage changes in mass were: 0.0 mol dm−30.0\ \text{mol dm}^{-3}, +8.0%; 0.2 mol dm−30.2\ \text{mol dm}^{-3}, +3.5%; 0.4 mol dm−30.4\ \text{mol dm}^{-3}, −1.0-1.0%; 0.6 mol dm−30.6\ \text{mol dm}^{-3}, −5.0-5.0%; 0.8 mol dm−30.8\ \text{mol dm}^{-3}, −8.5-8.5%.
    (a)
    The cylinder placed in the 0.6 mol dm−30.6\ \text{mol dm}^{-3} solution had an initial mass of 2.40 g and a final mass of 2.28 g. Show that the percentage change in mass is −5.0-5.0%.
    [1]
    (b)
    Describe the relationship between the sucrose concentration and the percentage change in mass.
    [2]
    (c)
    Estimate the sucrose concentration at which there would be no change in mass, and state what this concentration represents.
    [2]
    (d)
    Explain the change in mass of the cylinder placed in the 0.8 mol dm−30.8\ \text{mol dm}^{-3} solution.
    [3]
    (e)
    State two variables, other than sucrose concentration, that the student should have kept constant, and explain why one of them matters.
    [2]
  17. Question 1710 marks · Genetics & meiosis
    Red–green colour blindness in humans is caused by a recessive allele of a gene carried on the X chromosome. Use XBX^B for the allele giving normal colour vision and XbX^b for the colour-blindness allele. Maya has normal colour vision; her father is colour blind. Her partner Tom also has normal colour vision.
    (a)
    Explain why red–green colour blindness is more common in males than in females.
    [2]
    (b)
    State the genotypes of Maya and Tom, giving a reason for Maya's genotype.
    [2]
    (c)
    Determine the probability that their first child is a colour-blind boy. Show your working.
    [2]
    (d)
    Outline two processes in meiosis that produce genetic variation among gametes.
    [2]
    (e)
    Explain how natural selection can change the frequency of an allele in a population over many generations.
    [2]

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IB Biology exam tips

  • Obey the command term. "Outline" is a brief account; "describe" a trend means direction plus values from the data; "explain" means give the mechanism or reason; "compare" needs both similarities and differences. An explanation that merely describes scores half.
  • In data questions, quote the data with units ("mass fell by 8.5% at 0.8 mol per cubic decimetre") and name the overall trend before you interpret it. Then interpret: say what the biology is, not just what the numbers do.
  • Use the precise terms the markscheme looks for: hypertonic and hypotonic, partially permeable, concentration gradient, denaturation, memory cells, depolarisation. "Water moves to where there is less water" earns nothing.
  • For genetics, define the allele symbols, list the gametes, show the grid or the combinations, and state the probability as a fraction or percentage. A correct bare answer without working loses the method mark.

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As of 2026 (the 2023 syllabus, first examined in 2025), SL Paper 1 is 90 minutes: Paper 1A has 30 multiple-choice questions and Paper 1B has four data-based questions; SL Paper 2 is 90 minutes of structured and extended-response questions worth 50 marks. HL has 40 multiple-choice questions in a 2-hour Paper 1 and a 2.5-hour Paper 2. This set uses the same question styles at roughly a third of the length and stays on the core content shared by SL and HL, except the action-potential question (voltage-gated channels), which is HL-only content.

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